Breeding and Virtue
Austin Bramwell looks back wistfully at Gregory Clark’s A Farewell to Alms, which he suggests has been buried too soon. And perhaps it has.
As someone who played at least a modest role in the burial, though, I have to say I think it was mostly justified. I simply don’t agree with Clark’s thesis, and more importantly, I don’t think that the people he’s writing about would have agreed with it either.
Clark’s A Farewell to Alms argues that the Industrial Revolution took place in Britain circa 1800 because at that time and place, the middling to lower classes had attained sufficient breeding to make it happen. The Industrial Revolution was the product not of institutions, but of sufficiently widespread personal habits and values.
Breeding is a fraught word, but I struggle to find any other. Does breeding here mean good manners and habits, or does it mean good genetics? Clark is cagey about this question throughout throughout his book, and I really wish I knew the answer. It would appear to be an elementary distinction to draw when crafting a thesis for a project like his, but it’s a distinction Clark doesn’t attempt to make. At any rate, this breeding had to come from the upper classes, and Clark offers a novel means of transmission.
He presents evidence for an important, little-discussed demographic trend, and I think he’s likely right about it, at least in the broad outlines: During the era of largely subsistence agriculture, only the upper classes produced a population surplus. The lower classes tended not quite to replace themselves — so the children of upper-class parents could expect to slide down the social scale, while the children of lower-class parents could expect either to hold steady (in good times) or to die (in bad ones). As time went on, more and more people would have upper-class ancestry, and with it, upper-class breeding. In time there came the Industrial Revolution, in which upper-class habits and values, or possibly upper-class genes, did the heavy lifting.
Yet we can easily agree with the demographics while doubting the causality at every link of the chain.
First, Britain industrialized circa 1800. Let’s say it’s because of breeding. But China industrialized in the mid- to late twentieth century. Was China’s selective breeding process just exactly that far behind? One might have expected China to produce a better breed, or to arrive at good breeding sooner, because not only did it reward those of established social class, it also had an intensive, centuries-long civil service examination process that would identify people of good discipline, work habits, and intellect, and give them the social status they needed to reproduce their own good traits. Why didn’t China advance first?
Or take France. Nobility meant far greater privileges in France than in Britain for most of the post-Roman era. It also came with perhaps a larger set of obligations, and certainly a more exacting code of honor for the nobleman. And the class of nobles was larger, meaning that presumably more people were being inculcated with the ennobling values that would make industrialism possible (if, that is, we’re talking about education, and not eugenics). Why didn’t France develop first?
Or Italy. Not only did Italy possess an upper class, but competition within it was fierce. Inside city-states, rivalries between factions meant that anyone aspiring to power had to be really, really competent, ferociously wise, impeccably mannered, and able to obey when needed. Competition among the states took all of these to another level. Why didn’t Italy outbreed the rest of Europe?
One could go on — the harshness of the Malthusian dynamic in Poland and the Scandinavian countries, the even greater harshness of North America, the way in which the Jews showered resources — and wives — on the literate and the conscientious… the list almost leaves you wondering why the Britons industrialized at all. This is a frequent source of wonder to early modernists, and we didn’t even mention Japan. Or Korea, where any possible demographic effect is just very, very obviously trumped by institutional ones — effects which play no role in Clark’s story.
I think the deeper problem, though, is that Clark’s thesis rests on an underlying identity between the virtues needed for industrialism and the virtues possessed by the traditional aristocracy. I disagree emphatically that there is any such identity.
On the contrary, I find that nobles and trader-industrialists generally have two very opposed sets of virtues. In the excellent Systems of Survival, Jane Jacobs suggests that in western thought there are at least two divergent discourses of secular moral reasoning. She terms these “commercial syndrome” and the “guardian syndrome.” (Syndrome here has only its Greek meaning, and not its medical one: These are things that are found together, nothing more.)
Here’s the Guardian Syndrome:
* Shun trading
* Exert prowess
* Be obedient and disciplined
* Adhere to tradition
* Respect hierarchy
* Be loyal
* Take vengeance
* Deceive for the sake of the task
* Make rich use of leisure
* Be ostentatious
* Dispense largesse
* Be exclusive
* Show fortitude
* Be fatalistic
* Treasure honor
And here’s the Commercial Syndrome:
* Shun force
* Compete
* Be efficient
* Be open to inventiveness and novelty
* Use initiative and enterprise
* Come to voluntary agreements
* Respect contracts
* Dissent for the sake of the task
* Be industrious
* Be thrifty
* Invest for productive purposes
* Collaborate easily with strangers and aliens
* Promote comfort and convenience
* Be optimistic
* Be honest
Nobles, of course, possess and exalt the first, while they generally look down on the second. Hybrids between them, Jacobs argues, are a species of moral corruption. Someone who treasures honor, but who sells it for a thrifty price, is at best a cad, as all sides will agree.
Still, Jacobs’ point is that when we say “morals” we very frequently mean one or the other of these syndromes, but not both. If Clark’s progressive transmission of breeding were to have had had any effect at all, it would have been to pass along Guardian Syndrome, which has almost nothing to do with the dispositions needed for industrialization. We should be thankful, perhaps, that this breeding amounted to nothing, and that the children of nobility increasingly adopted the Commercial Syndrome instead.
It just so happens, too, that writers of the Enlightenment recognized something very like this distinction. Voltaire praised commercial society’s comfort and convenience; he extolled the London Stock Exchange, where people of all nationalities and faiths could invest and make contracts together. David Hume praised trade and industry in similar terms while arguing that the power of the old nobility be restrained.
The Enlightenment gave us the image, now forgotten, of the petit-maître, or the little master — the affected young man who tried too hard to be a gentleman, and who stood so firmly on his honor that it collapsed beneath him. There was a great deal of awareness at the time that the virtues of the dawning era would have to be different from those of the former upper class, and that simply learning from the past wasn’t going to work anymore.
In short, Clark’s model is right on the demographics, but wrong on the attitudes and values, which themselves underwent a revolution during the Enlightenment, such that the bourgeois virtues of 1800 were in almost no sense the noble virtues of, say, 1600.
Great post.
My knowledge of this era is limited, but I seem to recall reading that the English aristocracy was a lot more fluid than you might think. The gentry, for example, were less established and often inter-married with wealthier yeomen and merchants. Is it possible that this process made the English upper classes better adapted to commercial activities than other, more established aristocracies?Report
@Will,
What you say is true, but other aristocracies were fluid in other ways. By the 18th century, the typical French nobleman didn’t have a pedigree going back to Charlemagne — he’d more likely had a rich bourgeois ancestor, one who had bought an ennobling office from the king at some point in the sixteenth century or later. The capitalist/mercantile elite was the past of the French aristocracy, not its future.Report
@Jason Kuznicki, In my limited understanding, though, new-ennobled French aristocrats typically disowned or at least hid their commercial activities as being beneath their new station. English aristocrats typically had to engage in commercial ventures because they couldn’t squeeze enough money to maintain their position at court from their land.Report
@Simon K,
Both of these are true, but neither of them well supports Clark’s claims. English aristocrats may have had to engage in commerce, but they were acutely aware that this was not their class’s traditional role, and it wasn’t.
French aristocrats not only hid their commercial activities but were in fact barred from them by law. What the French system did, then, was to take a commercially inclined population and breed out the commercial traits, turning families of rich merchants into families of idle landowners, courtiers, gamblers, and military adventurers.Report
@Jason Kuznicki, Yes, I agree. I was considering writing a longer comment on why the difference between the French and English aristocracies was due to institutions, not breeding, but I’d most be speculating, and I suspect I’d be preaching to the choir anyway.Report
It is hard for me to believe the folks here don’t remember Churchill’s famous retort (in his Labor days) to the MP who said “The upkeep of civilization has been the great work of the aristocracy”: “It seems to me the upkeep of the aristocracy has been the great work of civilization!”Report
I thought part of Clark’s point was that downward social mobility in England was driven by the institution of primogeniture, with younger songs getting squeezed out of any inheritance and so having to make their own way in the world. That certainly makes England unique compared to, say, the Islamic system (which divvied property up among heirs in a way sufficiently complex to require the invention of algebra).
Speculating wildly and irresponsibly from the fact that the Carolingian empire more or less disintegrated as it was divided among too many of Charlemagne’s heirs, I’d guess that France didn’t have that same tradition of primogeniture — which could explain at least some of the difference.Report
@Paul B,
If only it were that easy. The split inheritance of the Carolingians was taken as an object lesson in why the French had to have primogeniture — and they did, for centuries. It was so firmly settled that often one couldn’t devise one’s estate to anyone else, in the entire or otherwise, if one had a surviving son. And among the surviving sons, the eldest always got the estate and the title.Report
@Jason Kuznicki,
Ah, okay. So much for wild speculation…
But the French sure held onto the no-girls-allowed part of the Salic law a lot longer than the English.Report